Exploring Premenstrual Syndrome in Criminal Law

Exploring Premenstrual Syndrome in Criminal Law Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) has played a part in the malady of a womens life for many years. The development of Biological Theories has made law enforcement, attorneys, and even society study the connection biology has with individuals, particularly women for this manuscript, who commit crime. With the research gathered and studies performed, the court system has yet to adopt PMS as a suitable reason for defense. Until further evaluations of PMS can be studied, the validity of the previous test results will more than likely be questioned when introduced in court and it will be less likely to be generally accepted. Biological Theory Analysis: Exploring Premenstrual Syndrome in Criminal Law Crime in America happens any and everywhere, all the time and there will always be a lawyer out there trying to get criminals a lesser punishment or no jail time for their crime. An individuals biology comes into question when attorneys are trying to build a defense against any type of criminal activity. Schmalleger (2007) states that Biology Theory is a theory that maintains the basic determinants of human behavior, including criminality, are constitutionally or physiologically based and often inherited. There are several aspects that biological theories cover; however, the focus of this manuscript will be on body chemistry. Body Chemistry is the category that Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) would be classified under. The definition of PMS will be examined, in depth and how it is connected to a womens life. Next, there will be a discussion on the symptoms that can occur in a womens body and further investigations on PMS cases that have been tried successfully. Furthermore, there will be a section addressing the opposing views of using PMS as a defense. Literature Review In order to discuss PMS, a definitive definition of this syndrome was needed. The definition was acquired from a known and highly recommended site called WebMD (20010) and this website has been providing informative information for many years. Along with the PMS definition, there was also a list of common symptoms that were provided that occurs when women are on their menstrual cycle. Cullen and Agnew (2006) essential readings have an article that was delivered by David Rowe and it discusses the biological theories of nature and the exposure to individuals physical counter parts. Schmalleger (2007) speaks about the many aspects of biological theories of crime causation and its many assumptions; along with the body type of criminals and its beginning stages of phrenology. Phrenology was first introduced in the 19th century and had the western world thinking more about the minds of criminals and punishment (Rafter, 2008). There has been some debate among professionals when addressing the disorder of PMS. Gallant, Popeil, Hoffman, Chakraborty, Hamilton (1992) have performed a study that showed no significant difference between women under the influence of PMS to women who were not. Despite this, there have been studies performed on the effects of other syndromes that have been connected to PMS. Gehlert, Song, Chang, Hartlage (2009) studied the prevalence of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD) and the effects it has on women and Gallant, Popeil, Hoffman, Chakraborty, Hamilton (1992) have participated in daily studies to confirm Late Luteal Phase Dysphoric Disorder (LLPDD). Other research has been reviewed and compared to Dr. Katherina Dalton, an expert on PMS analysis and the effects that woman have while experiencing Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) symptoms. Downs (2002) researched the Culpability of the PMS defense and its evolvement into psychosis if not treated. Ostovich, and Sabini (2005) performed a study that compared men and women and the effects gender has when going through or reaching puberty in its final stages. Easteal (1991) discusses PMS in the courtroom and how the effects of PMS may cause automatism in certain women. There are sections that cover the controversy the disorder brings to women in society and its credibility issues men have about women and crime. Davidson (2000) explores several cases that have been tried in different judicial system and have had successful outcomes while trying to introduce a hormonal defense that connects PMS and postpartum psychosis. Discussion Biological Theory Biological Theories make several assumptions which include (1) the brain being an organ of the mind and the locus of personality, (2) the basic determinants of human behavior, include criminal tendencies, constitutionally or genetically based (3) observed gender features may be partially the result of biological differences between the sexes and racial groups, (4) much of human conduct is fundamentally rooted in instinctive behavior, (5) basic determinants of human behavior, include criminality, from generation to generation (inherited), (6) biological roots have become increasingly disguised, (7) some human is the result of biological propensities from developmental stages, and (8) interplay among heredity, biology, and the social environment provides the nexus for any realistic of crime causation (Schmalleger, 2006). With that being said, biological theories began being dissected into stages to focus on the brain. Franz Joseph Gall was one of the first criminal anthropologists that studied the human skull and that study was called Phrenology. Many followed after his discovery and Rafter (2008) developed a book that described a diagnosis of criminality and other abnormalities by studying the contours of the skull. Although the skull had a number of interesting assumptions, phrenology eventually phased itself out as one of the crucial theories in identifying biological connections in crime. In time, analyst such as David Rowe gathered data on certain aspects of research that focused on the chemical messages, or neurotransmitters that transmit signals between neurons in the brain, e.g., serotonin, and the hormones that help regulate such things as responding to stressors (Cullen, Agnew, 2006). PMS means what? PMS stands for Premenstrual Syndrome and the debate over using this ailment as an acceptable defense has been the topic of many argumentative discussions between professionals. WebMD (2010) defines PMS as the physical and psychological symptoms that occur in the week before a womens menstrual period. There are over 150 common symptoms of PMS that most women experience and they categorized into three parts: Physical, Emotional, and Behavioral. Some of PMS symptoms include leg and stomach cramping, abdominal bloating, pack pain, Acne, breast swelling, anxiety, dizzy spells, anger, crying, Libido changes, accident prone, social isolation, hysteria, headaches, depression, mood swings, fatigue, insomnia, and many others (Easteal, 1991). For most women these symptoms appear for a short period of time, usually a week before the menstrual period and they disappear during or right before the cycle begins. Late Luteal Phase Dysphoric Disorder The American Psychiatric Association (APA) began indentifying mental disorders of individuals and recording the data to one day create a manual that would assist medical professionals on how to classify certain syndromes by their symptoms. Late Luteal Phase Dysphoric Disorder (LLPDD) was developed to the DSM III-R to provide a systematic set of criteria for establishing a premenstrual mood disorder (Gallant, et. al., 1992). Some of the symptoms that women have to have include being sad, tearful, angry, anxiety, fatigue, insomnia, change in appetite, difficult concentrating as well as many other physical maladies. LLPDD was created so that professionals would be able to distinguish it from Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) and diagnose criteria that included psychological disturbances that seriously interfered with work, ordinary social activities, relationships, and arise during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, ending within a few days of the onset of menstruation (Downs, 2002). Pr emenstrual Dsyphoric Disorder (PMDD) became the new name for LLPDD and the new studies aimed to determine the prevalence of PMDD using all four DSM-IV research diagnostic criteria (Gehlert, et., al., 2009). For the full diagnostic criteria of LLPDD, see Appendix A. PMS Based Defenses There have been cases as early as the late 1800s where a case of Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) have been used in court. The cases used PMS as a opener for the suspect to eventually plead temporary insanity. Insanity has many variations of its clinical interpretation, however, this manuscript will utilize the WebMD (2010) definition, which states insanity as the lack of understanding or having the mental capacity to enter into a rational state of normal responsibility. In the United States (US) two fundamental requirements are common to test for when determining insanity. The two fundamental elements are: (1) the defendant must suffer from a mental disease or defect, and (2) a casual relationship must exist between the disease or defect and the criminal offense (Downs, 2002). There is a defense that the US has recognized that is somewhat similar to an insanity plea and it is called automatism. Those who have studied insanity have connected the definition of automatism to insanity which states that individuals have an unconscious state of mind when committing a crime. Some researchers, such as Ostovich, Sabini (2005) have tried to link the beginning stages of puberty to account for some of the outburst of crime latter scene in women and men. The study explored the young adults first encounters with adult social and sexual behavior, attitudes, and work environment but the examination did not have enough evidence to support its claim. Another defense strategy is the diminished capacity (DC) diagnosis. Unlike automatism, a DC diagnosis is to focus on trying for a lesser sentence for the criminal act and not the conduct. If the defense handles the case with care and understanding, charges for heinous crimes will be reduced, which has been proven in several cases in England (Downs. 2002). Use in the Courtroom The studies that have been performed on women and their experiences with Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) have evolved into PMS being used as a defense in criminal cases. Davidson (2000) devised a section in his research that takes a deeper look into PMS in the courtroom. The majority of these cases took place overseas and has people across the globe interested in how the system had derived at some of their conclusions. One of the most notorious cases involved a woman named Craddock. Craddock was a barmaid in 1980 and she had murdered one of her co-workers. Craddock had many other crimes under her belt and she possessed a diary that kept a record of her violent behavior. An expert on PMS, Dr. Katherina Dalton was asked to review Craddocks case and determine if PMS had played a part in her crime. Cradock was found guilty of manslaughter (based on a plea of diminished capacity) and not murder due to the experts testimony that PMS turned Craddock into a ranging lunatic. Later, a judge had further reduced her sentence by allowing Cradock to not receive any jail time but to be placed on probation and medical treatment of progesterone. Progesterone is one of the medications that has been given to women to alleviate some of their symptoms bring them back to some form of normalcy. In the following year, 1981, Craddock had changed her name to Smith and managed to stay out of trouble until her dosage of progesterone was reduced. Smith had threatened to kill herself and a police officer on two separate occasions. Smith was once again convicted of all charges and still not awarded prison time. In the case of Regina v. Smith, Smith received probation relying on Smiths PMS in mitigation. The first American case that used Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) as a defense occurred in People v. Santos in 1982. Santos was being charged of child battering. The case was resolved through a plea bargain because Santos admitted to beating her child at the pre-trial. However, Santos claims that she suffered a black out due to PMS. This information was presented by the defense to the judge who still decided to plea in favor of the defendant and the case ended with Santos getting probation. Controversy PMS being applied to criminal law has bought about some resistance from a variety of people. The groups with the most to say about this topic are feminist groups. Feminist groups have their beliefs on this matter and do not want to give off the wrong impression of being un sympathetic. PMS is a disorder that should be considered under the proper conditions, as long as it does not stereotype all women and is not used frivolously for the defendants or the attorneys amusement in criminal proceedings (Easteal, 1991). There is also the concern that men who are being charged with domestic abuse will start to take advantage of PMS and use it to their advantage. In other words, men can claim that their wife become so annoying that he had to do something to make her stop. The fear of society not understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) and not realizing that all women falter to the same symptoms is what makes this syndrome so controversial. Conclusion Premenstrual Syndrome is a disorder that affects many women physically and in some cases, mentally. Several cases have applied PMS to a criminal defense and have been successful but the success came attached with mitigation to some form of insanity and as we all know, insanity is difficult to prove, not a frequently used defense and almost always raises some kind of controversy (Davidson, 2000). If more research and funding can be applied to the study of biological theories and the connection it has to women and PMS, maybe the acceptance of PMS as a criminal defense will be taken more seriously.

Personal Development Paper Essay

I have a lot of scope for improvement. I have a lot of potential both professionally and in the personal space – I need to tap it. My asthetic sense, candor and imagination help me stand out in a crowd and I need to fine tune these skills. Given my high sensitivity to stress, I tend to get very irritable and frustrated during high pressure scenarios. I am exteremly disorganized and this has really harmed me all my life. I really need to work on my organization skills.Goals To be more organized, and disciplined. I need to have a stronger work eithc, and develop strong analytical and quant skills. I would also like to invest alot of time in reading, and wasting less time doing meaningless stuff. Reading and getting exposed to the opportunities everywhere gets me excited, and once I am excited – I am driven.Perception of others In all honesty, others view me as exteremly modest but that is because I am good at hiding my weaknesses. They respect my candor and people skills, and appreciate my input once in a while.Standards organization expects you to meet Disciplined, focused, very strong finance background, strong work ethic, working in high pressure scenarios, and having a strong sense of responsibility. DEVELOPMENTAL PLANNING WORKSHEET Professor Randall S. Peterson DEVELOPMENT ISSUE (from GAPS analysis): The issue is that I am easily intimidated, and not focused. I tend to get distracted with my surroundings and tend to loose interest in my own ambition and agenda. I tend to get bored easily, and leave things in the middle – very impatient.EXPECTED OUTCOMES: What will be different? What could someone else observe that will change? For starters I will be more diligent, focused and orderly. This can be seen through my group participation, my in class assignments, my club involvement and my career hunt activities. Juggling so many aspects at once will require all of the above. My quant and financial skills can really develop if I invest time, and effort in reading and understanding the material. This can also be a visible change.What will I gain by achieving the goal? What is in it for you? Happiness. Job. Personal satisfaction. Personal growth and development.WHO ELSE NEEDS TO BE COMMITED TO THIS: What will you need to do as soon as you get back to the office to get started? Who do I need to get committed to helping me? And what is in it for them? Me, myself and I.LEARNING STRATEGIES FOR DEVELOPMENT (use at least three of the six to make your development goal SMART) 1) Seek New Challenges/Projects Challenge PE CASE CHALLANGE Specific Action/Time/Deadline working with people in a field I have very little experience in. Taken a challenge. Have to work hard. This will improve my quant and tech skills.2) Take Courses and Workshops Course/Workshop Specific Action/Time/Deadline 3) Develop Ongoing Feedback Name(s)/Strategy for Identifying People Study Group Specific Action/Time/Deadline Montly feedback on progress – personally and professionally. Team contract also helps keep us in check. 4) Identify Role Models and Coaches Name(s)/Strategy for Identifying People Raluca – Class mate Specific Action/Time/Deadline She helps me stay focused and organized everyday. We plan the everyday in advance, and luckily always manage to achieve the target.5) Development Reading Books/Papers Specific Action/Time/Deadline 6) Other Learning Tactics Strategy Specific Action/Time/Deadline OBSTACLES What will I give up? I will give up making excuses. I will talk less listen more. I will give up wasting time, and reading more. I will give up being disorganized. What are the major obstacles and how will I manage them? Obstacle is just me and my mind – I need to be focused, and do proper time management. Not get distracted with the noise around me. Work at my pace, and be patient.How to work with me I am pretty flexible, and easy going. Only thing is I lack commitment, and have poor work ethics. I tend to get distracted easily and hence get frustrated when the pressure builds up. Please be a little strcit with me when it comes to academics. I need to get more responsibility so I am actually forced to put in effort, instead of depending on others. This will help me build my quant and analytical skills, and that will increase my confidence 10 folds. Since I tend to get distracted easliy, please always bring me back on track. I am very dependable, approachable, and I love interacting with people and learning through people. Hence, if I don’t understand something, and if someone explains it to me politely I will always listen. I tend to disagree alot, and sometimes unnecessairly. I am also very open to people criticizing me. I love negative feedback so I have room to develop. Please motivate me, and cultivate in me discipline.

Anchoring Script

CENTRAL OFFICE, ‘YOGAKSHEMA, JEEVAN BIMA MARG, MUMBAI 400 021 RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANT ADMINISTRATIVE OFFICER 1. Life Insurance Corporation of India invites Online Applications from eligible Indian Citizens for appointment to the post of Assistant Administrative Officer. Candidates are requested to apply On-Line only. No other means/mode of application will be accepted.The schedule of events shall be as under: SCHEDULE OF EVENTS Start date for Online Registration Start date for Offline Payment of Application Fee/Intimation Charges at State Bank of India Branches Start date for Online Payment of Application Fee / Intimation Charges Last date for Online Registration & Online Payment of Application Fee/Intimation Charges Last Date for Offline Payment of Application Fee /Intimation Charges Download of Call Letter for Examination Date of Online Examination (Tentative) 5th March, 2013 7th March, 2013 5th March, 2013 1st April, 2013 4th April, 2013 First Week of May,2013 11th and/or 12th May, 2013 . (i) (ii) (iii) (iii) (iv) TOTAL NO. OF VACANCIES: 750 Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and Physically Handicapped shall be as under: ST OBC General(UR) Total OH VI CATEGORY SC 114 56 201 379 750 12 11 Vacancies The number of vacancies as also the number of reserved vacancies are provisional and may vary according to the actual requirements of the Corporation. Reservation /Definitions for Persons with Disabilities: Only the Orthopaedically Handicapped and Visually Impaired candidates are eligible to apply.Orthopaedically Handicapped (OH): Locomotor Disability means disability of bones, joints or muscles leading to substantial restriction of the movement of the limbs or any form of cerebral palsy. Cerebral Palsy means a group of non-progressive conditions of person characterized by abnormal motor control posture resulting from brain insult or injuries occurring in the pre-natal, peri-natal or infant period of devel opment.All the cases of Orthopaedically Challenged Persons would be covered under the category of ‘Locomotor disability or cerebral palsy’. A person having a minimum of 40% physical impairment with disability of one hand or one leg provided independent mobility is not affected is eligible to apply. Visually Impaired (VI): Candidates with visual Impairment falling under Category-I (40-74%) only are eligible to apply. Reservation for Persons with Disabilities shall be on horizontal basis.Selected candidates will be placed in the appropriate category. Page 1 of 9 v) Use of Scribe : The visually impaired candidates with visual impairment falling under Category I and candidates whose writing speed is affected by Cerebral Palsy can use their own scribe at their own cost during the On-line examination. In all such cases where a scribe is used, the following rules will apply: a. The candidate will have to arrange for his/her own scribe at his/her own cost. b. The scribe can be from any discipline.The academic qualification of the scribe should be one grade lower than the stipulated criteria. c. Candidates using a Scribe are required to fill up a Declaration Form (as per Annexure-I) and submit the same along with the Call Letter at the time of examination. Further, in case it later transpires that he/she did not fulfill any of the laid-down eligibility criteria or suppressed material facts, the candidature of the applicant will stand cancelled, irrespective of the result of the written test. d.Such candidate who uses a scribe shall be eligible for extra time of 20 minutes for every hour of the examination. Visually Impaired candidates under Low Vision may skip the non-verbal questions, and questions based on Graph and Table, if any. The candidates will be awarded marks for such Sections based on the overall average obtained in other Sections of the respective test. 3. Eligibility Conditions as on 1st March, 2013 shall be as under : Minimum Age shall be 21 years (completed) as on 1st March, 2013.Maximum age shall not be more than 30 years( born between 02/03/1983 and 01/03/1992 only are eligible ) Relaxations in upper age limit for SC/ST/OBC/ECO/SSRCO/Persons with Disabilities/Confirmed LIC employees shall be as under : SC/ST 5 YEARS OBC Age OH/VI(Gen) OH/VI(SC/ST) OH/VI(OBC) ECO/SSRCO (GEN) ECO/SSRCO (SC/ST) ECO/SSRCO (OBC) Confirmed LIC employees Educational Qualification 3 Years 10 YEARS 15 YEARS 13 YEARS 5 YEARS 10 YEARS 8 YEARS Further Relaxation of 5 YEARS Bachelor/Master’s Degree from a recognized Indian University/ Institution with a minimum of 55% marks in the aggregate in either of the Degrees.If any University awards grades instead of marks, applicants should clearly mention the numerical equivalent of the grades in terms of aggregate marks. The percentage of marks shall be arrived at by dividing the marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects by the aggregate marks irrespective of honors/optional Page 2 of 9 subject, if any. This will be applicable for those Universities also where Grades are decided on the basis of marks obtained in the Honors Subjects only. 4.Emoluments and Benefits: Basic pay of `17240 /- per month in the scale of `17240- 840(14) –29000– 910(4) –32640 (Under Revision) and other admissible allowances as per rules. Total emoluments at the minimum of the scale inclusive of House Rent Allowance & City Compensatory Allowance wherever admissible depending upon the classification of the city will be approximately Rs`33,418/- per month in ‘A’ Class city. Other benefits are Defined Contributory Pension, Gratuity, LTC, Medical Benefit, Group Savings Linked Insurance (GSLI), Group Personal Accident Insurance, Group Insurance , Vehicle Loan (2-wheeler/4 wheeler) as per rules.Service Conditions: As applicable in the Corporation from time to time. The advertised posts are regular and selected candidates, on appointment, are liable to be posted or subsequently transferred anywhere in India. Probation : One year, extendable up to 2 years. Guarantee Bond: Before joining as a Probationer, candidates will be required to give an undertaking to serve the Corporation for a minimum period of four years from the date of joining (including probationary period) failing which, he/she or his /her heirs, executors, administrators will be liable to pay liquidated damages of `100000/- (Rupees one lakh only) to the Corporation.The candidate will have to submit Deed of Indemnity for `100000/- (Rupees one lakh only) at his cost, duly stamped, the stamp value of which will be as applicable to the State in which the deed is executed by the candidate. Application Fees /Intimation Charges(Non-refundable): Candidates have the option of making the payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges through the On-Line Mode or the Off-Line Mode as under: 5. 6. 7. 8. General/OBC Application Fee-cum-Intimation Charges of ` 500/- plus Bank Charges /Gateway C harges in case of Offline/Online Payment respectively.For SC/ST/PH Candidates Intimation Charges of `50/- inclusive of Bank Charges in case of offline payment only. For instructions on method of payment please refer â€Å"How to Apply†. 9. Selection Procedure : Selection will be made on the basis of performance in the on-line test followed by a personal interview of short listed candidates and subsequent Pre-Recruitment Medical Examination. A Competitive Online examination will be held at centers all over India as shown in Annexure II.Applicants will have to appear for the online examination on any one day on 11th / 12th May, 2013 (tentatively) at the Centre (or a nearby city) chosen by them/ allotted to them at their own expense. The Corporation, however, reserves the right to change the examination date/Centre. Candidates will be informed accordingly in case of any change in the date /centre/venue of examination by e-mail and SMS. On-line Test: On-line test will be of objec tive type, multiple choices of 120 minutes (2 hrs) duration comprising of the following: For Candidates Page 3 of 9 Section Questions 2 3 4 5 Number of Questions Reasoning Ability 30 Numerical Ability 30 General Knowledge, Current 30 Affairs Computer Knowledge 30 English Language with 40 Special emphasis on Grammar, Vocabulary and Comprehension Total 160 Marks Time (Hrs) 90 90 60 60 100 120 Minutes ( 2hrs ) 400 Penalty for Wrong Answers There will be a penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one fourth (1/4 ) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score.If a question is left blank, i. e. no answer is marked by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. Candidate MUST pass in each Section separately and should also obtain minimum marks in the aggregate to qualify for the interview. The minimum marks to be obtained in each Sect ion and in the aggregate shall be decided by LIC of India. The marks obtained by the candidate in each Section and in the aggregate shall be arrived at after deduction of the marks for wrong answers. Decision of the Corporation in this regard shall be final and binding on the candidates.No correspondence will be entertained in this regard. Appearing in the online examination or mere pass in the online examination shall not vest any right in a candidate to be called for Personal Interview. Pre-exam training for SC/ST candidates: SC/ST candidates who wish to avail the benefit of pre examination training may register their name and other details with the Divisional Office of LIC of India convenient to them. The Divisional Office will inform the registered candidates, the date and venue of the training.Such candidates would have to attend the training at their own cost on the appointed dates and at the venue advised to them. Candidates are required to refer to the website under the tab â€Å"Careers† for details of the Divisional Offices of the Corporation. Interview I. The Corporation reserves the right to fix the minimum eligibility standards in order to restrict the candidates to be called for interview, commensurate with number of vacancies and also the minimum qualifying marks to qualify in the interview.Candidates who do not obtain the minimum qualifying marks as decided shall be excluded from further selection process The decision of the Corporation in this regard shall be final and binding on the candidates and no correspondence will be entertained in this regard. II. The number of candidates to be called for interview will be about three times the number of vacancies to be filled in subject to availability of successful candidates in the online test and will be purely as per their ranking in their respective category. Candidates will have to obtain the minimum marks in the interview as will be decided by the Corporation.Page 4 of 9 III. Outstation candidates called for interview shall be entitled for re-imbursement of Second Class Ordinary to and fro Railway/Bus Fare by the shortest route from the place of residence to the place of interview to be restricted to the fare by Railway Second Class Sleeper including the Reservation charges. IV. In case of similar marks of two or more candidates, the merit order of such group of candidates shall be as per the aggregate marks in online test and interview and further as per their additional post graduation qualification (i. . the person with higher educational qualification will be placed higher in the merit order) and in case of further similarity in educational qualification merit order will be decided on the basis of age, (i. e. senior in age will be placed higher in merit order). Pre-Recruitment Medical Examination: Shortlisted candidates will have to undergo a Pre-Recruitment Medical Examination and if found medically fit, will be offered appointment. 10.Action against Misconduc t: I) II) Candidates are advised in their own interest that they should not furnish any particulars that are false, tampered, fabricated or should not suppress any material information. The responses of candidates would be analyzed and compared with other candidates who appeared for the examination to detect abnormal patterns of similarity of responses. If, in the method adopted for this, it is established or suspected that the responses have been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/ valid, the Corporation reserves the right to cancel the candidature of such candidates.At any stage of recruitment, if a candidate is or has been found guilty of (a) Using unfair means during the examination or (b) Impersonating or procuring impersonation by any person or III) 11. (c) Misbehaving in the examination hall (d) Resorting to any irregular means in connection with his/her candidature during selection process (e) Obtaining support for his/her candidature by any means he/she in addition to rendering himself/herself liable to criminal prosecution may also be liable to be: i) Disqualified from the examination. i) Debarred either permanently or for a specified period from any examination/ recruitment to be conducted by the Corporation. How to Apply Pre-Requisites for Applying Online Before applying online, candidates should— Have a valid personal email ID, which should be kept active till the declaration of results. Intimation about call letters will be sent through the registered e-mail ID. Under no circumstances, a candidate should share/mention e-mail ID to / of any other person. In case a candidate does not have a valid personal e-mail ID, he/she should create his/her new e-mail ID before applying on-line and must maintain that email account.Keep the necessary details/documents ready in case of Online Payment of the requisite application fee/ intimation charges Page 5 of 9 a. b. c. d. e. f. The candidate should have a scanned (digital) image of his/her phot ograph and signature as per the specification given in Annexure III in JPEG format not exceeding 50 KB and 20 KB respectively and upload the photograph and signature. The online application will not be registered unless the candidate’s photo and signature is uploaded after completion of the entry in online mode. Candidates are necessarily required to apply On-line through LIC’s website under â€Å"Careers†- http://www. icindia. in/careers. htm. No other means/mode of applications will be accepted. Applicants satisfying the conditions of eligibility as on 01. 03. 2013 are first required to go to the LIC’s website www. licindia. in/careers. htm and download the Recruitment Notification and take a print out of the same for reference. Once the candidate clicks the relevant on-line application link titled â€Å"ON-LINE APPLICATION FOR LIC AAO’s RECRUITMENT†, it redirects the candidates to the on-line registration page. The candidate is required t o keep the details about bio-data ready to enable him/her to fill up the application form correctly.The name of the candidate or his/her father/husband etc. should be spelt correctly in the application as it appears in the certificates/mark sheets. Payment of Application Fee/Intimation Charges has to be done after successful registration of the application else application will be treated as cancelled. Choice of Examination City: Candidates should indicate the Name of the Examination City in the appropriate column of the online Application form. No change of Examination City will be permissible at a later date. The Corporation, for administrative reasons, however, reserves he right to direct the candidate to appear for online examination at any City other than the one chosen by the candidate. In the event of not being able to fill the data in one go, the candidate can save the data already entered. When the data is saved, registration number and password will be generated by the sys tem and displayed on the screen. Candidate should note down the registration number and password. Email and SMS indicating the Registration Number and Password will be sent. Candidates can reopen the saved data using Registration Number and Password and edit the particulars, if needed.This facility will be available for three times in all. Once the application is filled completely, the candidate should submit the data. In case of Offline payment, candidates should take a printout of the system generated fee payment challan immediately. No change/alteration will be allowed thereafter. The registration at this stage is provisional. Payment of Application Fee/Intimation Charges In case of Offline Payment of Application Fee/Intimation Charges, the payment will be accepted from 2nd working day after the on-line registration and can be made within three working days thereafter at any branch of State Bank of India by cash only.System generated payment challan will be used for depositing th e amount. Once the amount is paid, the registration process will be complete. Candidates should ensure State Bank of India Branch Code, Journal Number along with Branch Seal on the Candidate’s copy of the Challan. Candidates are advised to preserve the payment challan with them for reference and use in future. In case of Online Payment, i) Candidates should carefully fill in the details in the Online Application at the appropriate places very carefully and click on the â€Å"SUBMIT† button at the end of the Online Application Format.Before pressing the â€Å"SUBMIT† button, candidates are advised to verify every field filled in the application especially with regard to spellings. ii) The application form is integrated with the payment gateway and the payment process can be completed by following the instructions therein. iii) Payment can be made by using only Master/Visa Debit or Credit Cards Page 6 of 9 or Internet Banking by providing information as asked on t he screen. iv) In ase candidates wish to pay fees/intimation charges through the online payment gateway after the upload of photograph and signature an additional page of the application form is displayed wherein candidates may follow the instructions and fill in the requisite details. v) If the online transaction has been successfully completed, a Registration Number and Password will be generated which shall be preserved by the candidate for future reference. vi) If the online transaction has not been successfully completed, then the following message is displayed â€Å"Your online transaction was unsuccessful.Please register again†. Candidates may then revisit the â€Å"Apply Online† link and fill in their application details again. In case of unsuccessful registration the amount of fees debited will be refunded to the account in due course. vii) On successful completion of the transaction, an e-receipt will be generated. Candidates are required to take a printout o f the e-receipt. viii) After submitting your payment information in the online application form, please wait for the intimation from the server. DO NOT press BACK or REFRESH button in order to avoid double charge. x) To ensure security of your data, please close the browser window once your transaction is completed. h. Candidate will receive confirmation of registration by SMS/Email after two working days from the date of payment of fees. There is also a provision to reprint the submitted application containing fee details, after three days from the date of payment of application fees/intimation charges. i. Candidates can log on for Registration of Applications on the dates mentioned under† Schedule of Events† on the Para 1 of this notification. j. Candidates shall be solely responsible for filling up the online applications correctly.In case of invalid applications due to errors committed by the applicant no claims for refund of application money so collected shall be e ntertained by the Corporation. k. To avoid last minute rush, candidates are advised to register on-line and pay the Application Fees /Intimation Charges (wherever applicable) in time. l. Issue of Call Letters for on-line test: Candidates will have to visit the website under the heading â€Å"Careers† http://www. licindia. in/careers. htm for downloading call letters for on-line test from the first week of May, 2013 onwards from the given link hosted on LIC’s website.Intimation for downloading call letter will also be sent through e-mail/SMS. Once the candidate clicks the relevant link, he/she can access the application form. The candidate is required to use (i) Registration Number, (ii) Password (iii) Date of Birth for downloading the call letter. m. Identity Verification for Written Examination. The candidate is required to affix his/her recent recognizable photograph on the call letter and appear at the exam centre with the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof in ori ginal and copy thereof.In the examination hall, the call letter along with the photocopy of the candidate’s photo identity which can be PAN Card/Passport/Driving Licence/Voter’s ID Card/Bank Pass Book with photograph/Photo ID proof issued by a Gazetted Officer/People’s Representative along with Photograph/Identity Card issued by a recognized college/university /Aadhar Card with photograph/Employee ID card of Central/State/PSUs should be submitted to the Invigilator for verification. The candidate’s identity with respect to details on the call letter and in the Attendance List will be verified.If identify of the candidate is in doubt, the candidate may not be allowed to appear for the Examination. Page 7 of 9 12. (i) Important Instructions: Before applying, candidates are advised to satisfy themselves that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions especially age, qualification, caste (for Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe/Other Backward Class candidates on ly). If found ineligible on any count, their candidature will be cancelled at any stage of recruitment. The fees/Charges paid by ineligible candidates shall be forfeited.Decision of the Corporation in all matters regarding eligibility of the candidate, selection and any other matters relating to recruitment will be final and binding on the candidate. No correspondence or personal enquiries shall be entertained by the Corporation in this regard. (ii) Keep particulars of date of birth, educational qualifications, caste, other personal details etc. ready as these are required to be entered in the on-line application. (iii) After applying on-line, the candidates should btain a system generated print out of the application on A4 size paper and retain it after signing the same. Please do not send this print out to Life Insurance Corporation of India. (iv) Candidates who are called for interview will have to submit the duly signed System Generated Print Out of the On-line application, copy of the call letter duly signed by the invigilator during the examination, Receipt of fee as mentioned above and also produce original and attested Photostat copies of all relevant certificates at the time of interview, failing which their candidature shall be liable to be cancelled. v) Withdrawal of candidature on account of non furnishing of any information will not confer any right to carry forward or retain the candidature for future recruitment Application once submitted will not be allowed to be withdrawn and the fee once paid will not be refunded nor would this fee be held in reserve for future exam/ selection.Caste Certificate in respect of SC/ST/OBC must be obtained in the prescribed format from any one of the following authorities and submitted at the time of interview District Magistrate/ Additional District Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/ 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate/ Sub- Divisional Magistrate / Taluka Ma gistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra Assistant Commissioner not below the rank of 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate).Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Additional Chief Presidency magistrate /Presidency Magistrate. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidates and / or his family resides. As far as the candidates belonging to ST caste from Tamil Nadu are concerned, the certificate issued by Revenue Divisional Officer only is acceptable and not by the Tehsildar. (vi) (vii) A B C D E For claiming reservation under OBC category, candidates should belong to such aste or community which are common to both the lists in respect of Mandal Commission and the State Governments List from the State of their origin (as per the list published by the Central Government). The benefit of reservation shall not apply to persons/ sections belonging to â€Å"Creamy layer† as specified vide column 3 of the Schedule to the Dept. of Personnel & Tr aining OM No. 36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT) Page 8 of 9 dated 8. 9. 93. OBC candidates should produce certificate as per the proforma prescribed by the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Govt. f India which should include that they do not belong to Creamy layer. (Non submission of certificate in the prescribed proforma may render the application to be invalid. ) Formats of Caste Certificates for Scheduled Castes/Tribes/Other Backward Classes and Disability certificates for Physically Handicapped Candidates shall be available on our website. (ix) Candidates serving in Government / Public Sector Undertakings should produce â€Å"No Objection Certificate† from the employer at the time of interview, failing which, their candidature may not be considered. x) Candidates shall not be permitted to use calculators, mobile phones, pagers or any other instruments in the examination hall. (xi) Admission to on-line test is only provisional without verification of age/ qualif ication/category of candidate with reference to documents. Candidates should not furnish any particulars that are false, tampered, fabricated and/or suppress any material information while filling up the online application form (xii) Any request for change of address will not be entertained whilst the recruitment exercise is in progress. xiii) Call letters will not be dispatched by post or any other mode. Candidates will be required to download the call letters from the referred website. (xiv) Candidates will appear for the online examination at the allotted centers at their expenses & risks and the LIC will not be responsible for any injury/ losses etc. of any nature caused to them. (xv) Appointment of selected candidates is subject to his/ her being declared medically fit as per the requirement of the LIC.Such appointments will also be subject to the LIC of India (Staff) Regulations, 1960. (xvi) Interview Call Letters for shortlisted candidates shall be sent by e-mail address give n by the candidate at the time of on line application. Requests for sending letters to different address subsequently shall not be entertained. (xvii) Candidates are requested to kindly refer to the website periodically and check their e-mail account for updated information pertaining to the Recruitment till the conclusion of the recruitment process. xviii) In case of any dispute on account of interpretation of this advertisement in version other than English, the English version shall prevail. (xix) CANVASSING IN ANY FORM WILL LEAD TO DISQUALIFICATION OF CANDIDATURE. (viii) Place: Mumbai. Date 01/03/2013 Executive Director (Personnel) ANNEXURE – I – DECLARATION BY THE CANDIDATE AND SCRIBE ANNEXURE – II – LIST OF EXAMINATION CENTRES ANNEXURE – III GUIDELINES FOR SCANNING THE PHOTOGRAPH AND SIGNATURE Page 9 of 9 Anchoring Script MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 Solved Paper Solved by Develop India Group MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 1. India was part of an ancient super continent called Gondwanaland. It included present day— (A) South America (B) Africa (C) Australia (D) All of these Ans : (D) 2. Which plateau lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhya ranges ? (A) Malwa plateau (B) Chhota Nagpur plateau (C) Deccan plateau (D) Peninsular plateau Ans : (A) 3. Which state of India has borders with three countries namely Nepal, Bhutan and China ? (A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Meghalaya (C) West Bengal (D) Sikkim Ans : (D) 4.The leading state in wheat production in India is— (A) Punjab (B) Haryana (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (C) 5. Which state is the largest producer of tobacco in India ? (A) Gujarat (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Karnataka (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (B) 6. One horned rhinoceros is found in the following states— (A) Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura (B) West Bengal and Assam (C) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam (D) West Bengal and Tripura Ans : (B) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 2 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 7.Which of the following is different from the remaining three ? (A) Haematite (B) Magnetite (C) Limonite (D) Bauxite Ans : (D) 8. States with the highest and lowest density of population in India are respectively— (A) Uttar Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh (B) West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh and Sikkim (D) West Bengal and Sikkim Ans : (B) 9. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Hirakud Project (b) Haldia Refinery (c) Tarapur Nuclear Station (d) Kudremukh Hills 1. West Bengal 2. Orissa 3. Karnataka 4.Maharashtra Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 1 2 4 3 (C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 1 2 3 4 Ans : (C) 10. Arrange the following in decreasing order of size and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Jupiter 2. Uranus 3. Earth 4. Sa turn Codes : (A) 1, 4, 3, 2 (B) 4, 1, 2, 3 (C) 1, 4, 2, 3 Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 3 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) 4, 1, 3, 2 Ans : (C) 11. Arrange the following from west to east and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. London 2. Lisbon 3. Frankfurt 4.Beirut Codes : (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4 (C) 2, 1, 4, 3 (D) 1, 2, 4, 3 Ans : (B) 12. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Kenya (b) Uganda (c) Uzbekistan (d) Ukraine 1. Tashkent 2. Nairobi 3. Kiev 4. Kampala Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 2 1 3 (B) 2 4 1 3 (C) 2 4 3 1 (D) 4 2 3 1 Ans : (B) 13. Maximum strength of Lok Sabha as stipulated in the Constitution of India is— (A) 547 (B) 545 (C) 552 (D) None of these Ans : (C) 14. Which of the following political parties is not a national party as recognized by the Election Commission of India ? A) Nationalist Congress Party Downloaded from : http://www. develo pindiagroup. co. in/ Page 4 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) Bahujan Samaj Party (C) Communist Party of India (D) Samajwadi Party Ans : (D) 15. Consider the following statements with respect to qualification to become the member of Rajya Sabha and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. should be at least 30 years of age 2. should be registered as a voter on the list of voters in the state from which the candidate is to be elected 3. hould not hold office of profit under the state Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Ans : (*) 16. The 44th Amendment in the Constitution of India removed the following right from the category of Fundamental Right— (A) Freedom of speech (B) Constitutional remedies (C) Property (D) Freedom of religion Ans : (C) 17. Which among the following sectors contributes most to the GDP of India ? (A) Primary sector (B) Secondary sector (C) Tertiary sector (D) A ll three contribute equally Ans : (C) 18. Which is the final authority in India to approve Five Year Plans ? A) Union Council of Ministers (B) Planning Commission (C) Prime Minister (D) None of these Ans : (D) 19. Who is called the pioneer of liberalization of Indian Economy ? (A) Dr. Manmohan Singh Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 5 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) P. V. Narsimha Rao (C) Dr. Bimal Jalan (D) P. Chidambaram Ans : (A) 20. Green Index has been developed by— (A) World Bank’s environmentally and socially sustainable development division (B) United Nations environment programme (C) United Nations development programme (D) Kyoto Protocol Ans : (B) 21.Public Distribution System is aimed at— (A) Providing food security to the poor (B) To prevent hoarding and black-marketing (C) To prevent overcharging by traders (D) All of the above Ans : (D) 22. Who among the following released â€Å"Citizens guide to fight corruptionâ €  ? (A) Ministry of Family Welfare (B) Consumer Co-operative Societies (C) Central Vigilance Commission (D) Transparency International Ans : (D) 23. Which of the following is not included in Human Development Index ? (A) Life Expectary (B) Real per Capita Income (C) Social Inequality (D) Adult Literacy Ans : (C) 24.Bharat Nirman includes (select the correct answer from the codes given below)— 1. Bring an additional one crore hectares under assured irrigation 2. To provide road connectivity to all villages that have a population of 2000 3. To give telephone connectivity to the remaining villages Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 2 and 3 are correct Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 6 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) None of the above Ans : (B) 25. What is the size of the eleventh five year plan of India ? (A) Rs. ,64,471 crore (B) Rs. 36,447 crore (C) Rs. 36,44,718 crore (D) Rs. 3,64,47,185 crore Ans : (C) 26. Consi der the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. In Beijing Olympics, Abhinav Bindra won gold medal in 10 metres rifle shooting. 2. In Beijing Olympics, Sushil Kumar won bronze medal in fly weight boxing. Codes : (A) 1 is correct (B) 2 is correct (C) Both are correct (D) None of these Ans : (A) 27. When did India last win a hockey gold medal at the Olympics ? (A) 1964 Tokyo (B) 1972 Munich (C) 1976 Montreal (D) 1980 Moscow Ans : (D) 28.This great hockey player was the prolific goal scorer (24 goals approximately) in 1932 and 1936 Olympics. There was demand in the media to celebrate his birth centenary on 8th September 2008. He spent his later life in Gwalior. Identify him‚ (A) Dhyan Chand (B) Captain Roop Singh (C) Gurmeet Singh (D) A. I. S. Dara Ans : (A) 29. Virendra Sehwag scored his second triple century in the test cricket. He became only the third player in the history to do so. The other two are— (A) Brian Lara and Gary Sobers (B) Donald Bradman and Wally Hammond (C) Gary Sobers and Wally Hammond Downloaded from : http://www. evelopindiagroup. co. in/ Page 7 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) Donald Bradman and Brian Lara Ans : (D) 30. Who among the following won the Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award last year (2008) ? (A) M. S. Dhoni (B) Vishwanathan Anand (C) Abhinav Bindra (D) Sachin Tendulkar Ans : (A) 31. Consider the following statements with reference to Beijing Olympics and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Michael Phelps won eight gold medals. 2. Usain Bolt became the fastest man by winning 100 m and 200 m races. 3. Roger Federer won gold medal in Men’s Singles Tennis.Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Ans : (A) 32. Who won the ONGC-IBSF World Billiards Championship in September 2008 at Bangaluru ? (A) Pankaj Advani (B) Geet Sethi (C) Rupesh Shah (D) Peter Gilchrist Ans : (A) 33 . Who won the mixed doubles at US Open 2008 ? (A) Leander Paes—Cara Black (B) Leander Paes—Lisa Raymond (C) Mahesh Bhupathi—Martina Hingis (D) Mahesh Bhupathi—Mary Pierce Ans : (A) 34. Madhya Pradesh won record number of medals in the 33rd National Games at Guwahati in 2007. In which game did Madhya Pradesh win maximum gold medals ? A) Karate (B) Wushu (C) Shooting Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 8 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) Athletics Ans : (A) 35. Which among the following awards is given to sportspersons by the Government of Madhya Pradesh ? (A) Arjun Award (B) Vikram Award (C) Dronacharya Award (D) Khel Ratna Award Ans : (B) 36. Which of the following is not a style of swimming ? (A) Free-style (B) Back stroke (C) Front stroke (D) Butterfly Ans : (C) 37. Who won the AFC Challenge Cup Football Championship in August 2008 ? (A) India (B) Tajikistan (C) Turkmenistan (D) DPR Korea Ans : (A) 38.Who is the first Indian woman chess player to cross 2600 ELO rating ? (A) Koneru Humpy (B) Tania Sachdev (C) P. Harika (D) S. Vijay Laxmi Ans : (A) 39. Where was 2nd All Star Asian Athletics Championship organized in September 2008 ? (A) Pune (B) Bangaluru (C) Indore (D) Bhopal Ans : (D) 40. Who among the following cricketers from Madhya Pradesh has not played for India in a test match ? (A) Narendra Hirwani (B) Amay Khurasiya Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 9 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (C) Mushtaq Ali (D) Rajesh Chauhan Ans : (B) 41.Two new districts were formed in Madhya Pradesh in the year 2008. Identify— (A) Alirajpur and Burhanpur (B) Burhanpur and Anooppur (C) Singrauli and Anooppur (D) Singrauli and Alirajpur Ans : (D) 42. Which of the following cities is closest to IST (Indian Standard Time) meridian ? (A) Rewa (B) Sagar (C) Ujjain (D) Hoshangabad Ans : (A) 43. Which of the following national highways has the longest length in Madhya Pradesh ? (A) NH-3 Ag ra-Gwalior-Dewas-Bombay (Mumbai) (B) NH-7 Varanasi-Rewa-Jabalpur-Salem (C) NH-12 Jabalpur-Bhopal-Jaipur (D) NH-26 Jhansi-Sagar-Lakhnadon Ans : (A) 44.Consider the time of sun rise in Sidhi and Jhabua, and choose the correct option— (A) Sidhi will have sun rise 1 hour earlier (B) Jhabua will have sun rise 1 hour earlier (C) Sidhi will have sun rise ? hour earlier (D) Jhabua will have sun rise ? hour earlier Ans : (D) 45. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Chhindwara (b) Mandala (c) Jhabua (d) Shivpuri 1. Bhil 2. Bharia 3. Gond 4. Sahariya Codes : Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 10 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 4 1 3 (B) 1 3 2 4 (C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 1 4 2 3 Ans : (C) 46.Sanskrit University has been set up at— (A) Gwalior (B) Ujjain (C) Rewa (D) Jabalpur Ans : (B) 47. Which of the following is not a world heritage site ? (A) Khajuraho temples (B) Bhimbetka caves (C) San chi stupa (D) Mandu palace Ans : (D) 48. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Bhoj (b) Durgawati (c) Samudragupta (d) Ashok 1. Ujjain 2. Vidisha 3. Dhar 4. Gondwana Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 3 4 2 1 Ans : (D) 49. Which of the following rivers does not fall into river Yamuna ? (A) Ken (B) Betwa (C) SonDownloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 11 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) Chambal Ans : (C) 50. Which of the following dams is not on Narmada river ? (A) Bargi (B) Omkareshwar (C) Indira Sagar (D) Ban Sagar Ans : (D) 51. ‘Badhai’ is— (A) Folk dance of Bundelkhand (B) Folk dance of Malwa (C) Festival celebrated in Bhopal on 2nd day after Diwali (D) Folk music of Bundelkhand Ans : (A) 52. Which among the following districts of Madhya Pradesh has a problem of soil erosion ? (A) Jabalpur (B) Bhopal (C) Morena (D) Khandwa Ans : (C) 53.Match the following a nd select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIITDM) (b) Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management (IIITM) (c) Indian Institute of Management (IIM) (d) Indian Institute of Science, Education and Research (IISER) 1. Indore 2. Bhopal 3. Jabalpur 4. Gwalior Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 4 2 1 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 4 3 2 1 Ans : (B) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 12 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 54.Which National Park/Sanctuary has been selected to house Gir lions ? (A) Pench (B) Kanha (C) Bandhavgarh (D) Palpur Kuno Ans : (D) 55. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Zari Batua (b) Bhairavagarh prints (c) Handicrafts of Bagh (d) Sarees of Chanderi 1. Ujjain 2. Dhar 3. Bhopal 4. Ashok Nagar Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 1 2 4 (B) 1 3 4 2 (C) 1 3 2 4 (D) 3 1 4 2 Ans : (A) 56. Who amongst the following has served longest as Chief Minister ? (A) Pandit Ravishankar Shukla (B) Arjun Singh (C) Dr. Kailashnath Katju (D) Digvijay Singh Ans : (D) 57.Which party amongst the following is neither nationally recognised party nor a party recognized for the state of Madhya Pradesh ? (A) Bahujan Samaj Party (B) Samajwadi Party (C) Gondwana Ganatantra Party (D) Communist Party of India Ans : (C) 58. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— In Madhya Pradesh : 1. Zila Panchayat Adhyaksha (President) is elected through indirect election. Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 13 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 2. 50% seats are reserved for women in Panchayati Raj. . Sarpanch is elected through direct election. Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Ans : (D) 59. Where is the automobile industry cluster of Madhya Pradesh ? (A) Pithampur (B) Malanpur (C) Mandideep (D) Maneri Ans : (A) 60. Of which crop is Madhya Pradesh the largest producer in the country ? (A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) Jowar (D) Soyabean Ans : (D) 61. Arrange the following districts in decreasing order of per hectare fertilizer consumption and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1.Indore 2. Dindori 3. Hoshangabad 4. Mandala Codes : (A) 1, 3, 4, 2 (B) 4, 2, 1, 3 (C) 4, 1, 3, 2 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 Ans : (A) 62. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Jamunapari (b) Bhadawari (c) Kadaknath (d) Malwi 1. Cow Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 14 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 2. Goat 3. Buffalo 4. Poultry Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 3 4 1 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 4 1 2 3 (D) 4 3 2 1 Ans : (A) 63. Coal Bed Methane has been found in— (A) Shahdol (B) Sagar (C) Jabalpur (D) Ujjain Ans : (A) 64.Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of the following minerals in the countr y— (A) Coal and Diamond (B) Copper and Iron (C) Coal and Copper (D) Copper and Diamond Ans : (D) 65. Which of the following sectors has been given the maximum allocation in the XI five year plan of Madhya Pradesh ? (A) Health (B) Education (C) Power (D) Irrigation Ans : (C) 66. Which of the following places has 500 MW unit for electricity generation ? (A) Birsinghpur (B) Sarani (C) Chachai (D) Chhindwara Ans : (A) 67. Which among the following districts has most adverse sex ratio ? (A) Morena Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/Page 15 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) Balaghat (C) Jhabua (D) Rewa Ans : (A) 68. Which among the following districts has the highest literacy rate ? (A) Bhopal (B) Narsinghpur (C) Jabalpur (D) Indore Ans : (B) 69. How many districts of Madhya Pradesh are covered under NREGA ? (A) All districts (B) 18 districts (C) 31 districts (D) None of these Ans : (A) 70. Which of the following cities is not covered under JNNURM ? (A) Indo re (B) Jabalpur (C) Gwalior (D) Ujjain Ans : (C) 71. In an open ground, Rakesh walks 20 metres towards north, takes a left turn and walks 40 metres; again takes a left turn and walks 50 metres.How far is he from the starting point ? (A) 110 metres (B) 70 metres (C) 50 metres (D) 40 metres Ans : (C) 72. Fill up the blank— 5 7 74 11 8 185 †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ 6 205 (A) 13 (B) 15 (C) 10 Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 16 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) 12 Ans : (A) 73. Fill in the blank— McCain : Obama : : Palin :†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ (A) Gore (B) Rice (C) Biden (D) Clinton Ans : (C) 74. Fill up the blank— 5 9 21 37 81 †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ (A) 163 (B) 153 (C) 183 (D) 203 Ans : (B) 75. Which diagram best represents the relationship of Doctors, Engineers and Professors ? Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 6 to 78) : Consider the following data about marks obtained (out of 100) : Marks Subjects History Geography Economic 10–19 20–29 3 0–39 40–49 50–59 60–69 70–79 80–89 90–100 1 1 1 10 27 48 9 3 Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 17 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 02 3 2 12 20 42 17 2 01 4 1 9 16 48 17 4 0 Pass marks is 40. First division marks is 60. 76. Which subject has the highest pass percentage ? (A) History (B) Geography (C) Economics (D) All are equal Ans : (A) 77. Which subject has most first divisioners ? (A) History (B) Geography (C) Economics (D) All re equal Ans : (C) 78. In which subject is the average of marks scored maximum ? (A) History (B) Geography (C) Economics (D) All are equal Ans : (C) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 18 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 79. A school has 12 teachers. One of them retires at the age of 62 years and a new teacher replaces him. The change reduces the average age of the staff by 3 years. What is the age of the new teacher ? (A) 22 years (B) 24 years (C) 26 yea rs (D) 28 years Ans : (C) 80. A 50 metres long train passes over a bridge at a velocity of 30 km/hour.If it takes 36 seconds to cross the bridge, the length of the bridge is— (A) 200 m (B) 250 m (C) 300 m (D) 350 m Ans : (B) 81. A football league has 12 teams. Tournament is to be played on double round robin followed by the two top teams playing the Final. Round robin means that each team plays every other team. How many matches will be played in the tournament ? (A) 132 (B) 133 (C) 67 (D) 66 Ans : (A) Directions—Based on the following information, answer the question 82 to 85 : Sachin, Rahul, Virendra, Anil and Ishant are wearing Red, Blue, White, Black and Brown pants and caps (not in order).No one is wearing the cap and the pant of the same colour. All of them are wearing pants of different colours and caps of different colours. Every one of them is carrying one of the items namely Bat, Ball, Stumps, Gloves and Pads. Further, it is given that : (i) Sachin is wearing brown cap. (ii) Ishant is not wearing a blue or red pant. (iii) Gloves is being carried by the one who is wearing blue pant. (iv) Rahul is wearing white cap. (v) Virendra is wearing black pant. (vi) Anil is wearing red cap and brown pant. (vii) One who is wearing red pant is carrying pads. (viii) One who is wearing brown pant is carrying bat. 82.What is the colour of Virendra’s cap ? (A) Red Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 19 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) White (C) Blue (D) Cannot be determined Ans : (C) 83. What item is being carried by the person wearing white pant ? (A) Stumps (B) Ball (C) Gloves (D) Stumps or Ball Ans : (D) 84. Who is wearing the blue pant ? (A) Sachin (B) Ishant (C) Sachin or Rahul (D) Rahul or Ishant Ans : (C) 85. If Rahul is wearing red pant, what is the correct combination ? (A) Sachin—Brown cap—Black pant (B) Anil—Red cap—Blue pant (C) Virendra—Blue cap—Brown pant (D) Ish ant—Black cap—White pant Ans : (D) 86.Under National e-Governance Plan, SWAN is— (A) State Wide Area Network (B) Systems Wide Area Network (C) State Wise Area Network (D) Systems Wise Area Network Ans : (A) 87. Under National e-Governance Plan, CSC is— (A) Citizen Service Centre (B) Common Service Centre (C) Community Service Centre (D) Computer Service Centre Ans : (B) 88. Google company has launched a new browser in third quarter of 2008. It is— (A) Chrome Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 20 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) Lycos (C) Alta-vista (D) Mozilla Firefox Ans : (A) 89.First fully computer literate district in the country is— (A) Ernakulam (B) Villupuram (C) Thiruvallur (D) Malappuram Ans : (D) 90. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Narayan Murthy (b) Azim Premji (c) Ramlingam Raju (d) Ramadurai 1. Wipro 2. TCS 3. Infosys 4. Satyam Computers Code s : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 4 3 (B) 3 1 4 2 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 2 4 1 3 Ans : (B) 91. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. . Net (Dot Net) Framework has been developed by Microsoft 2.Java is an open source technology developed by Sun Microsystems Codes : (A) Only 1 is correct (B) Only 2 is correct (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct (D) None is correct Ans : (C) 92. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Proxy server provides TCP/IP address 2. Proxy server processes clients requests by forwarding the requests to other servers. Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 21 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 Codes : (A) Only 1 is correct (B) Only 2 is correct (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct (D) None is correct Ans : (C) 93.An exclusively private network used by employees of a company in a single location will be classified as— (A) Internet (B) Local Area Network (C) Wide Area Network (D) ARPANET Ans : (B) 94. In a database, field is— (A) label (B) table of information (C) group of related records (D) category of information Ans : (D) 95. A million bytes is approximately— (A) Gigabyte (B) Kilobyte (C) Megabyte (D) Terabyte Ans : (C) 96. To increase the length of a network without loss of signal strength, we would use— (A) Repeater (B) Router (C) Gateway (D) Switch Ans : (A) 97.If a domain name ends with . edu. us, then it is— (A) An international organization (B) A non-profit organization (C) An educational institute in Australia (D) An educational institute in USA Ans : (D) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 22 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 98. Word Processors, Spread sheets are examples of— (A) System Software (B) Application Software (C) Platform Software (D) None of these Ans : (B) 99. Which of the following is not an output device ? (A) Drum pen plotter (B) C RT monitor (C) Earphones (D) Digital camera Ans : (D) 100.One of the first viruses to attract wide spread public attention was designed to infect MS-DOS on 6th March 1992. Name of the virus is— (A) Brain (B) Catch me if you can (C) Michaelangelo (D) Friday the thirteenth Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 101 to 110) : The following ten questions consist of two statements; one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these questions using the code below— (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but R) is not correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false but (R) is true. 101. Assertion (A) : In India, electricity distribution companies calculate the consumption of electricity in kWh. Reason (R) : Electrical System in India works at a frequency of 60 Hz. Ans : (C) 102. Assertion (A) : A plant which has nitrogen deficiency will show symptoms like stunted growth and pale green and yellow leaves. Reason (R): Nitrogen is responsible for green leaf growth. Ans : (A) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 23 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 03. Assertion (A) : Gypsum is added to cooled clinkers of cement. Reason (R) : Gypsum speeds up the setting time of cement. Ans : (A) 104. Assertion (A) : People with AB blood groups are universal recipients. Reason (R) : Red blood cell of blood group AB has no antigen and so agglutination does not occur with any other blood group. Ans : (C) 105. Assertion (A) : Wind patterns are clockwise in southern hemisphere and anticlockwise in northern hemisphere. Reason (R) : The directions of wind patterns in northern and southern hemisphere are governed by Coriolis effect. Ans : (A) 106.Assertion (A) : Protest, led by Lala Lajpat Rai, was organized in Lahore in 1928 against Sim on Commission. Reason (R) : Simon Commission did not have a single Indian member in it. Ans : (A) 107. Assertion (A) : Foodgrain production per capita in Madhya Pradesh is less than the national average. Reason (R) : The productivity of foodgrains in Madhya Pradesh is less than the national average. Ans : (A) 108. Assertion (A) : The Indian Constitution is basically federal in form. Reason (R) : Article 352 has provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in states. Ans : (B) 109.Assertion (A) : Lehman Brothers (an investment banking company of US) filed for chapter 11 bankruptcy protection in September 2008. Reason (R) : Subprime lending was one of the major causes of financial crisis. Ans : (A) 110. Assertion (A) : CERN (European Organization for Nuclear Research) is the world’s largest particle Physics laboratory. Reason (R) : CERN is French aeronym of the name of the provisional body founded 2 years before the organization came into existence. Ans : (A) 111. Formation of Ozone hole is maximum over— (A) India Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. o. in/ Page 24 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) Africa (C) Antarctica (D) Europe Ans : (C) 112. Steel is mainly an alloy of Iron and— (A) Chromium (B) Nickel (C) Manganese (D) Carbon Ans : (D) 113. Aryabhatta was launched on— (A) 19th April, 1975 (B) 6th December, 1957 (C) 31st January, 1958 (D) 2nd October, 1980 Ans : (A) 114. ‘Project Tiger’ in India was started in— (A) 1970 (B) 1973 (C) 1981 (D) 1984 Ans : (B) 115. Gas released during Bhopal gas tragedy was— (A) Methyl isothiocyanate (B) Ethyl isothiocyanate (C) Methyl isocyanate (D) Ethyl isocyanate Ans : (C) 116.Light year is the unit of— (A) Time (B) Distance (C) Speed of light (D) Speed with respect to speed of light Ans : (B) 117. An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. What happens to the water level when the ice melts ? It— Downloaded from : http://www. d evelopindiagroup. co. in/ Page 25 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (A) rises (B) falls (C) remains the same (D) first rises and then falls Ans : (C) 118. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Anaemia (b) Goiter (c) Night blindness (d) Beri-beri 1. Vitamin B deficiency 2. Iron deficiency 3.Iodine deficiency 4. Vitamin A deficiency Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 2 3 4 1 Ans : (B) 119. Which of the following lens is used to minimize Myopia ? (A) Convex lens (B) Concave lens (C) Cylindrical lens (D) None of these Ans : (B) 120. India’s first atomic power station is— (A) BARC (B) Tarapur Atomic Power Station (C) Narora Atomic Power Station (D) None of these Ans : (B) 121. A fan produces feeling of comfort during hot weather because— (A) Fan supplies cold air (B) Our perspiration evaporates rapidly (C) Out body radiates more heatDownloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 26 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (D) Conductivity of air increases Ans : (B) 122. Which among the following countries is not a member of Nuclear Suppliers Group ? (A) China (B) New Zealand (C) Ireland (D) Iran Ans : (D) 123. Which river in Bihar changed its course in the year 2008 and caused calamity ? (A) Ganga (B) Gandak (C) Kosi (D) Ghaghra Ans : (C) 124. United Nations declared the year 2008 as the International Year of— (A) Sanitation (B) Drinking water (C) Literacy (D) Reduction of infant mortality Ans : (A) 125.Violence against Christians erupted in Orissa after the murder of Swami Lakshmanananda Saraswati in August 2008. Which district was the worst affected ? (A) Keonjhar (B) Bargarh (C) Sambalpur (D) Kandhamal Ans : (D) 126. Which film received the best feature film award at the 54th National Film Awards ? (A) Pulijanmam (Malayalam) (B) Kabul Express (C) Lage Raho Munna Bhai (D) Podokkhep (Bengali) Ans : (A) 127. According to the Article 82 of the Constituti on of India, the allocation of seats in Lok Sabha to the states is on the basis of the †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ census. (A) 1961 Downloaded from : http://www. evelopindiagroup. co. in/ Page 27 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (B) 1971 (C) 1981 (D) 1991 Ans : (B) 128. Russia recognized independence of Georgia’s two territories in August 2008. The two territories are— (A) Kosovo and Dushanbe (B) Kosovo and South Ossetia (C) Abkhazia and Dushanbe (D) South Ossetia and Abkhazia Ans : (D) 129. Which country was the first after the ban on India was lifted by the Nuclear Suppliers Group, to sign an agreement that would allow supply of civil nuclear technology to India ? (A) USA (B) Italy (C) Russia (D) France Ans : (D) 130.What is the cut-off date for recognition of rights under â€Å"The Scheduled Tribes and other traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006† ? (A) 13th September, 1976 (B) 13th December, 2006 (C) 13th September, 2005 (D) 13th Dece mber, 2005 Ans : (D) 131. Who amongst the following did not share Nobel Prize for Physics in 2008 ? (A) Tohide Yasakawa (B) Makoto Kabayashi (C) Toshihide Maskawa (D) Yoichiro Nambu Ans : (A) 132. Name of the spacecraft for India’s mission moon is— (A) Chandrayaan-I (B) Chandrayaan-II (C) Antariksha (D) Change I Ans : (A)Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 28 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 133. Who among the following was Secretary, Economic Affairs, Government of India and then became Governor, Reserve Bank of India in September 2008 ? (A) Y. V. Reddy (B) D. Rangarajan (C) T. K. Nair (D) D. Subbarao Ans : (D) 134. To which place did Ratan Tata decide to move the Nano Project from Singur ? (A) Pithampur (B) Pune (C) Sanand (D) Gopalpur Ans : (C) 135. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1.Mohenjo Daro, Harappa, Ropar and Kalibangan are important places of Indus Valley Civilization 2. Harappan people developed planned cities with network of streets and drainage system 3. Harappan people did not know use of metals Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Ans : (A) 136. Which Indian king defeated Seleucus, the administrator of Sindh and Afghanistan appointed by Alexander ? (A) Samudragupta (B) Ashok (C) Bindusar (D) Chandragupta Ans : (D) 137.Which English Governor of East India Company in India was expelled by Aurangzeb ? (A) Aungier (B) Sir John Child (C) Sir John Gayer (D) Sir Nicholas Waite Ans : (B) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 29 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 138. First decisive military success of English East India Company in India is marked by— (A) Battle of Buxar (B) Battle of Plassey (C) Battle of Panipat (D) Battle of Haldighati Ans : (A) 139. Bhils revolted against the British in— (A) M. P. and Maharashtra (B) M. P. and Bihar (C) Biha r and Bengal (D) Bengal and Maharashtra Ans : (A) 140.The modern historian who called the revolt of 1857 as the first war of indepdence was— (A) Dr. R. C. Majumdar (B) Dr. S. N. Sen (C) V. D. Savarkar (D) Ashok Mehta Ans : (C) 141. The newspaper brought out by Bal Gangadhar Tilak to promote nationalism was— (A) Yugantar (B) Deshbhakti (C) Kesari (D) Kranti Ans : (C) 142. Why did Mahatma Gandhi withdraw Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922 ? (A) Most of the leaders were arrested and were in prison (B) British agreed to partly fulfil the demands (C) Because of Chauri-Chaura violence (D) He saw no chance of success of the movement Ans : (C) 143.Arrange the following in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Dandi March 2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre 3. Quit India Movement 4. Swadeshi Movement Codes : Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 30 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 (A) 2, 4, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 1, 3 (C) 2, 1, 4, 3 (D) 4, 2, 3, 1 Ans : (B) 144. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Bipin Chandra Pal (b) Aurobindo Ghosh (c) Brahmobandhab Upadhyay (d) Muhammad Ali 1. New India 2. Comrade 3. Vande Mataram 4.Sandhya Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 3 4 2 (B) 2 1 3 4 (C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 1 3 2 4 Ans : (A) 145. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below— (a) Doctrine of Lapse (b) Partition of Bengal (c) Dual government in Bengal (d) Social Reforms 1. Curzon 2. Clive 3. Dalhousie 4. Bentinck Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 3 1 4 (B) 3 1 4 2 (C) 3 1 2 4 (D) 2 3 4 1 Ans : (C) 146. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Subhash Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc Downloaded from : http://www. evelopindiagroup. co. in/ Page 31 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 2. Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association Codes : (A) Only 1 is correct (B) Only 2 is correct (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 147. Jammu and Kashmir became an integral part of India on— (A) 26th October, 1948 (B) 26th November, 1948 (C) 26th October, 1947 (D) None of these Ans : (C) 148. The first declared war between India and Pakistan was fought in the year— (A) 1962 (B) 1965 (C) 1966 (D) 1971 Ans : (B) 149.Which important latitude divides India into two almost equal parts ? (A) 23 ° 30’ South (B) 33 ° 30’ North (C) 0 ° (D) 23 ° 30’ North Ans : (D) 150. The westernmost point of India is— (A) 68 ° 7’ W in Gujarat (B) 68 ° 7’ W in Rajasthan (C) 68 ° 7’ E in Gujarat (D) 68 ° 7’ E in Rajasthan Ans : (C) Downloaded from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 32 MPPSC General Studies Paper 2009 You can contact us for any Question Papers of any year call us at 09999811970 Only in 100/- per question paper Downloade d from : http://www. developindiagroup. co. in/ Page 33

Analysis of the Authors Writing Techniques in Angelous I...

I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings by Maya Angelou is an autobiography with a fictional aspect that depicts the life of Maya herself from the time she was eight to sixteen. The in-depth stories reveal the struggle and hardships she faced growing up. In Cold Blood by Truman Capote is a true account of the murders of the Clutter family in Holcomb, Kansas on November 15, 1959. The book gives a more thorough look at the details of the family and the killers, the book is written to take the events and elevate them into a story, enabling the event to transcend their specific historical moment. Capote assembles the facts and perspectives about the Clutter murder into a narrative, creating that feeling of a fiction book. Maya Angelou’s book reads†¦show more content†¦It fell flat on the big vat of lard and by noontime in the summer the grease had softened to a thick soup.† (pg. 16) The theme in the book was growing up black in the south, and the racism that came with it. The development of the theme is what categorizes the book as a fiction. I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings starts out discussing the family and the problems within the family, and as the book progresses it begins to unravel the deeper theme of racism. However, the theme also incorporates the chronological element of the plot and stories into a sequence of life events that make the narrator, Angelou, the person she is. The first person narration is witnessed all throughout the book, every page is told in her perspective and the readers learn more about her than the other characters. Provided, that factor is what gives the book its autobiographical component. Since all of these conventions of fiction are so prominen t the book is considered an autobiographical fiction, but mainly read as if were just fiction. In Cold Blood was written as an account of the murder of a family and to convey the truth behind the fictional facet of the book, Capote uses the convention of point of view by narrating the story from 3 different perspectives: the Clutters, Dick Hickock and Perry Smith, and a neutral third person. The alternating perspectives enable the readers to understand both sides of the